Question: 1. What will follow if a Money Bill is Substantially amended by the Rajya
Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.
Answer (a)
Explanation:
Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill.
It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make the recommendations. It must
return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with or without
recommendations.
LS can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of RS.
If the LS accepts any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by
both the Houses in the modified form.
If the LS does not accept any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have passed by
both the Houses in the form originally passed by the LS without any change.
Question: 2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States
at the same time.
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor
of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post.
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
Answer. (c)
Explanation
Option (a) is wrong. Same person can be appointed as Governor of two or more states at
the same time.
Option (b) is wrong: The judges of a HC are appointed by the President. The chief
justice of HC is appointed by the President after consultation with the CJI and the
Governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the chief justice of
the concerned high
court also Sulted.
Option (d) is wrong: There are only two such UTS with legislatures (Delhi &
Puducherry). The CMS of UTs are appointed by the President (not by the Lt.
Governor).
Option (c) is correct: Governor holds office for a term of 5 years. However, this term of
5 years is subject to the pleasure of the President. The Constitution DOES NOT lay
down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
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Question: 3. With reference to Indian History, the members of the Constituent
Assembly from the Provinces were:
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces.
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the
Muslim League.
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in
constitutional matters.
Answer (c)
Explanation
In Constituent Assembly, each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in
proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for
every million population.
Seats allocated to each British Province were to be divided among the 3 principal
communities: Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion
to their population.
The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that
community in the provincial legislative assembly, and voting was to be by the method of
proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely
states.
Question: 4. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the
States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: An amendment bill can be initiated in either House of
Parliament.
Statement 2 is wrong: Federal features of the Constitution can be amended by a special
majority of
the Parliament, and, the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.
Question: 5. Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can:
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer.(c)
Explanation
Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
He the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of
Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may
be named a member, but without a right to vote.
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of
Parliament.
Question: 6. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the
Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. (d)
Explanation
NDC and Planning Commission are non-constitutional and non-statutory bodies.
Zonal Councils were set up under States Re-organisation Act, 1956.
Question: 7. Which of the following bodies does not/do notfind mention in the
Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Explanation
NDC and Planning Commission are non-constitutional and non-statutory bodies.
Zonal Councils were set up under States Re-organisation Act, 1956.
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Question: 8. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. [B]
Explanation
(NOTE: Planning Commission and NDC are no more. They have been replaced by
NITI Aayog and Governing Council.)
Chairman of Finance commission was not a member of NDC.
Question: 9. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas
(PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from grasslands exploitation
Answer. [C]
Explanation
“To create autonomous regions in tribal areas” was NOT identified as its objective.
(This falls under 6th Schedule, while PESA is related to 5th Schedule only)
Objectives of the PESA Act:
1. To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to
the scheduled areas with certain modifications.
2. To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population.
3. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram
sabha a nucleus of all activities.
4. To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.
5. To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities.
6. To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to
tribal requirements.
7. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of
panchayats at the lower level.
Question: 10. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the
process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights
or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/ Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer [D]
Explanation
As per Forest Rights Act 2006, Gram Sabha plays pivotal role in ensuring the rights of
the forest dwellers, decision making, planning and management for Joint Forest
Management.
Question: 11. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has
been provided in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Answer. [B]
Explanation
Article 38: To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated
by justice – Social, economic and political – and to minimise inequalities in income,
status, facilities and opportunities.
Question: 12. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are
fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer. [C]
Explanation
Article 37 makes it clear that “these principles are fundamental in the governance of the
country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws”.
DPSPs denote the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies
and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the
State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
Question: 13. Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. [B]
Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: Committee on Public Accounts consists of 22 members (15 from
Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Statement 2 is correct: It examines the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts
of the Union govt and any other accounts laid before the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit
reports of the CAG, which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
In Scrutinising the appropriation accounts and the audit report of CAG on it, the
committee has to satisfy itself that:
(a) The money that has been disbursed was legally available for the applied service or
purpose
(b) The expenditure conforms to the authority that governs it
(c) Every re-appropriation has been made in accordance with the related rules
Question: 14. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied
institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer [A]
Explanation
• Statement 3 is wrong: Cabinet is headed by Head of Govt ( PM) and NOT by Head of
State (i.e. President).
Question: 15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the
Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of
India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for
legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. [B]
Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: Article 75 states that the Council of Minister is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 75 also contains principle of individual responsibility. It
states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 78 (Duties of Prime Minister) states that it is the duty of
the Prime Minister to communicate to the president all decisions of Council of Ministers
relating to the administration of the affairs of Union and proposal for legislation.
Question: 16. Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the
Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of
preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.[B]
Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: NDC was an advisory body to Planning Commission (NOT its
organ). Moreover, the plans made by Planning Commis ion were placed before ND for
its acceptance.
(NOTE: Planning Commission and NDC are no more. They have been replaced by NITI
Aayog and Governing Council.)
Statement 2 is correct: Self-explanatory.
Statement 3 is correct. It is one of the voluntary Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act:
Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats to prepare plans for
economic development and social justice.
Question: 17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of
that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. [B]
Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong: Chairman of RS (Vice-President) is not a member of RS. BUT,
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by RS from among its members. So Deputy
Chairman is member of RS.
Statement 2 is correct: Electoral college for VP consists of both elected and nominated
members of Parliament (in case of President only elected members).
Question: 18. With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the
following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of
the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal
programmes and Schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. [C]
Explanation
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted in 1995, under the Legal
Services Authority Act (1987), for the provision of free legal services to the weaker
sections of the society, and to organize Lok Adalats for speedy and amicable resolution
of cases.
To give effect to the directions of NALSA, following have been constituted:
(i) State Legal Services Authority in every state,
(ii) High Court Legal Services Authority in every High Court,
(iii) Taluk Legal Services Authority in most of the Taluks, and
(iv) District Legal Services Authority in most of the Districts.
NALSA lays down guidelines, principles, policies and is involved in framing effective
and economical schemes for the State Legal Services Authorities to execute the Legal
Services Programmes throughout the country.
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