1. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the
commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it
follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall
Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after
each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each
year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons. The Address of the Governor
contains a review of the activities and Achievements of the Government during the previous
year and their policy with regard to important internal problems as well as a brief account of
the programme of Government Business for the session. The State legislature is a
constitutional body and derives its power from the Constitution itself and not from the centre.
Thus it is in its complete Sovereignty (Speaker has the complete responsibility of rules of
procedure and conduct of business) to formulate any rule for the proper functioning of the
business in the house within the constitutional premise
2. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in
India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG
status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) (earlier: Primitive tribal group) is a government
of India classification created with the purpose of enabling improvement in the conditions of
certain communities with particularly low development indices. The features of such a group
include a preagricultural system of existence that is practice of hunting and gathering, zero or
negative population growth, extremely low level of literacy in comparison with other tribal
groups. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
There are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. The Konda Reddis designated
PVTG are found in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh and Irular are designated PVTG in the
Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
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3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by
the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation: High Courts are Constitutional courts. They are the principal civil courts of
original jurisdiction in each state and union territory. They have the jurisdiction to declare
any central law to be constitutionally invalid. The Supreme Court is the guardian of the
Constitution. In this capacity, anything that ultravires the constitution is cut down by the
highest judiciary including the Constitutional amendment. The basic structure of the
constitution derived in the Kesava Nanda Bharti case, 1973 plays an extremely important role
in this function.
4. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer. (d)
Explanation: Self explanatory
5. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from
outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not
have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: C
Explanation: The first centre State relation commission, Sarkaria Commission voiced for the
independency and neutral role of the governor in the states. In this back drop it recommended
that the appointment of the governor has to be democratic which will lead to impartial
functioning of the office
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several
posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation: Temporary suspension of disqualification in certain cases Under The Parliament
(Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 If a person being a member of Parliament who
immediately before the commencement of this Act held an office of profit declared by any
law repealed by this Act not to disqualify the holder thereof for being such member, becomes
so disqualified by reason of any of the provisions contained in this Act, such office shall not,
if held by such person for any period not exceeding beyond a period of six months from the
commencement of this Act disqualify him for being a member of Parliament. It has been
amended 5 times till date. The office of profit is not defined in the constitution. Rather its
meaning is ascertained through Supreme Court judgments and Election Commission
Guidelines.
7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer: A
Explanation: The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it.
It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions
and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights. Nehru was also very
clear on the purpose behind the first amendment. The state wanted to pursue nationalisation,
take away lands from the zamindars, re-distribute them, and make special provisions for the
socially and economically backward.
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India
as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
The 44th amendment of the Indian Constitution was significant as it removed partially the
distortions that were introduced into the Constitution by 42. But it had no Proposal of an
Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. A five judge Bench
in the NJAC case, in a majority of 4:1 rejected the NJAC Act brought in by the 99th
constitutional amendment by stating it as ―unconstitutional and void.‖ Justice Kehar stated
that the expectation from the judiciary, to safeguard the rights of the citizens of this country,
can only be ensured, by keeping it absolutely insulated and independent, from the other
organs of governance and the Proposed NJAC violated the Independence of the Judiciary.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be
rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes
‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court
of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a
majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total
members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India can be rejected by the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The Constitution of India does not
defines and gives details of the term ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of
the Supreme Court of India which are the cretyeria for the impeachment of the Judges. The
details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given
in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for
voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and
supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of
total members of that House present and voting. Note: Elimination of the option helps in
getting the answers.
10. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Answer: B
Explanation: The right to marry is a part of right to life under Article 21 of Indian
Constitution. Right to marriage is also stated under Human Rights Charter within the
meaning of right to start a family. The right to marry is a universal right and it is available to
everyone irrespective of their gender. Various courts across the country have also interpreted
right to marry as an integral part of right to life under Article 21. The SC has reaffirmed this
in the recent ruling in the Hadiya Case.
11. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional
powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties
cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made
by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a
Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the
Union Legislature.
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 142. Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as
to discovery, etc . The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree
or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending
before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the
territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by
Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may
by order prescribe. Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the
Supreme Court shall, as respects the whole of the territory of India, have all and every power
to make any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or
production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.
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