Question: 1. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council
of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
1. [D]
The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through
various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment
motion, no confidence motion, etc.
Question: 2. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of:
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Answer. (a)
Explanation:
The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society,
and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any
discrimination.
Restraints which are controlling someone or restraining the actions of someone.
Thus restraints are contrary to equality which also curtails the liberty of a person.
Hence option 2 is not correct.
Competition occurs for the purpose of progress in an activity/institution / Business. It is
unrelated to equality. Hence option 3 is not correct.
Ideology is a set of beliefs or principles of an institution/group of people of a society.
Ideology is of many types namely political ideologies like Democracy, Communism, and
so on. Hence option 4 is not correct.
Question: 3. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Explanation
3. [B]
Balwant Rai G Mehta committee submitted its report in November
1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of
democratic decentralisation, which ultimately came to be known
as Panchayati Raj.
Question: 4. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is
reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Answer. [A]
Explanation
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the
general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to
the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
Question: 5. Which of the following statements is/are true of the
Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. [D]
Explanation
This can be a tricky question.
Official UPSC Answer Key says (d).
While it is true that the Parliament has enforced most fundamental
duties already via some or the other laws (legislative process), the
question explicitly mentions that a legislative process has been
provided. The Constitution does not provide for their direct
enforcement by the courts (they are non-enforceable). Moreover,
there is no legal sanction if any law violates them.
They are also not correlative to legal duties.
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Question: 6. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles
of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. [D]
Explanation
NOTE: The question asks about DPSPs being a
DPSPs CANNOT act as constraints/ limitations on the
government because they are not enforceable and they are
fundamental to the governance of a country. Fundamental Rights
operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature.
Question: 7. In the context of India, which one of the following is
the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the
citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Answer. [A]
Explanation
Rights and duties have an organic relationship. One cannot enjoy
a right if others do not obey their duties. For e.g. you can’t enjoy
your Right to a clean environment if others do not perform their
duty of protecting and conserving the environment.
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the
Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry
out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government
whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring
collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the
Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Question: 8. In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or
different cases.
Answer.[A]
Explanation
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of
legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments.
On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they
can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void).
Question: 9. Which one of the following objectives is NOT embodied in the Preamble to
the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Explanation
9. [B]
Text of Preamble: to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship…
Question: 10. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Explanation
10. [A]
The object of government according to John Stuart Mill’s views, being the attainment of
values and virtues in men, their self-development … Virtue and intelligence should
become genuine attributes of character in a citizen … and then through participation,
people at large, would be able to control the rulers by influencing the character and
direction of public policy.
APPROACH:
Democracy is a form of government where true power lies in the hands of people, i.e.,
people elect their own representatives. For using such great power given to them, people
should have the appropriate intelligence and expected virtues, so that this power given
to them is not misused by them.
Question: 11. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Ans. [D]
Explanation
Article 1 of the constitution describes India as a Union of States and not federation
because of 2 reasons:
(i) Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and
(ii) No state has the right to secede from the federation.
Question: 12. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following
statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not
elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member#39;s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for
the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
12. [D]
Both statements are wrong.
Public bill: Introduced by a Minister.
Private bill: Introduced by any member who is not a Minister.
Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since
independence.
Question: 13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution
of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many
Explanation
13. [C]
Rights are legal and moral entitlements or claims of a person over
other fellow beings, over society and over the government.
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Question: 14. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears 1in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Explanation
Ans [C]
Qualifications for election to Lok Sabha:
– must be a citizen of India
– not less than 25 years of age
– must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary
constituency
Only the person, who is an elector in the constituency in which the candidate contests
the election, can propose the name of the candidate and can sign the nomination paper,
that means, the elector who has been enrolled in the electoral roll for the constituency
other than the constituency from which the candidate contests the election can not
propose the name of the candidate.
If the candidate is contesting the election as a candidate set up by a recognised political
party, only one elector of the constituency is required to propose the name of the
candidate but if the candidate contests the election as a candidate set up by registered
unrecognised political party or as an independent candidate, in that case ten electors of
the constituency are required to sign the nomination paper as proposers.
Que.15 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India
Answer. (c)
Explanation:
As per Constitution and The Representation of the People Act, 1951, any person can
contest from any constituency, provided that he possesses qualification for contesting
from that constituency i.e. he has not been disqualified under Constitution or other laws
for contesting the elections.
The candidate or any of his / her proposer should deliver the nomination paper to the
Returning Officer or to the Assistant Returning Officer specified in public notice of
election.
Only the person, who is an elector in the constituency in which the candidate contests
the election, can propose the name of the candidate and can sign the nomination paper,
that means, the elector who has been enrolled in the electoral roll for the constituency
other than the constituency from which the candidate contests the election can not
propose the name of the candidate.
Que. 16 Consider the following statements:
In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least
50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. ()
Explanation:
Que.17 Consider the following statements :
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the
conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer.(3)
Explanation:
Article 324 – The Constitution provides the Election Commission of India with the
power of direction, superintendence, and control of elections to parliament, state
legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India.
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other election
commissioners.
Functions of Election Commission
To direct and control the entire process of conducting elections to Parliament and
Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
To decide the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections,
whether general or bye-elections
To decide on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations,
location of counting centres, arrangements to be made in and around polling stations
and counting centres and all allied matters
To prepare electoral roll and issues Electronic Photo Identity Card (EPIC)
To grant recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with
settling disputes related to it
To sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties, and also
monitors the same
To advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of
Parliament and State Legislatures.
To issue the Model Code of Conduct in the election for political parties and candidates
so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by
those in power.
Que.18 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Answer. (d)
Explanation:
In India, the right to vote is provided by the Constitution and the Representation of
People’s Act, 1951, subject to certain disqualifications. Article 326 of the Constitution
guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18.
Que.19 Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation
of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2and 3
Answer. (b)
Explanation:
According to Article 356, President’s Rule can be imposed on any state of India on the
grounds of the failure of the constitutional machinery.
What happens after the President’s Rule is imposed?
The governor carries on with the administration of the state on behalf of the President.
He or she takes the help of the state’s Chief Secretary and other advisors/administrators
whom he or she can appoint.
The President has the power to declare that the state legislature’s powers would be
exercised by the Parliament.
The state legislative assembly would be either suspended or dissolved by the President.
When the Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate ordinances with
respect to the state’s administration.
Que.20 The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that :-
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Answer. (c)
Explanation:
Parliamentary System of Government
There are two executives:
The nominal executive is the head of state e.g. President while the real executive is the
Prime Minister, who is the head of government.
In such a system, the role of president or monarch is primarily ceremonial and the
Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields effective power.
Countries with such a system include Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom as well as
Portugal.
The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the
Centre and in the States.
Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level
and Articles 163 and 164 contain provisions with regard to the States.
Executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
Que.21 Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer.(d)
Explanation:
The Indian model of federalism is called quasi-federal system as it contains major
features of both a federation and union. It can be better phrased as ‘federation sui
generis‘ or federation of its own kind.
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states that ‘India that is Bharat shall be a union of
states’.
Indian federation was not a product of coming together of states to form the federal
union of India. It was rather a conversion of a unitary system into a federal system.
It is a compromise between two conflicting considerations such as autonomy enjoyed by
states within the constitutionally prescribed limit (State List) and the need for a strong
centre in view of the unity and integrity of the country (Union List).
Que.22 Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the
Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer.(c)
Explanation
Right Against Exploitation (Article 23 and 24)
The Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits human trafficking and begar (forced
labour without payment) to protect the millions of underprivileged and deprived people
of the country.
The right is available to citizens of India as well as to non-citizens.
Prohibition of Child Labour: Article 24 of the Indian Constitution forbids employment
of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines.
However, it did not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (renamed as Child &
Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 in 2016) specifically deals
with the violations of related to this right.
The 2016 amendment of this act completely prohibited employment of children below
14 years of age in all occupations and processes.
It also prohibited the employment of adolescents (14-18 years of age) in hazardous
occupations or processes.
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