Question: 1. With reference to Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer. [A]
Explanation
The Cabinet Mission recommended a loose three-tier confederation. India was to remain
united. It was to have a weak central government controlling only foreign affairs, defence and
communications.
There were no provisions as given in statements 2 and 3.
Hence, (a) is the correct answer.
Question: 2. Amnesty International is:
(a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
(b) a global Human Rights Movement
(c) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people
(d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions
Answer. [B]
Explanation
Amnesty International is a NGO focused on human rights.
As per the website of Amnesty International, “Amnesty
International is a global movement of more than 7 million
people who take injustice personally. We are campaigning
for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.”
Question: 3. India is a member of which of the following?
1. Asia – Pacific Economic Corporation.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them
Ans. [B]
Explanation
India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member
of ASEAN+6, not ASEAN.
Question: 4. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of
India are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between states
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Answer [A]
Explanation
Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes (areas
and tribes need special protection due to disadvantageous conditions).
Sixth Schedule: Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura, Mizoram.
Also Read: Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2016: Learn and Prepare with the Solved Exam Paper
Question: 5. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Ans. [D]
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India is the logical and primary custodian of the Indian Constitution,
while also being its interpreter and guardian. Parliament enjoys the authority to amend the
Constitution, the Supreme Court has the authority to examine the validity of constitutional
amendments.
The Supreme Court ensures that the other branches of government perform their
responsibilities in accordance with the Constitution.
Question: 6. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian
National Congress resulting in emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer[A]
Explanation
Surat split was due to disagreements between Moderates
and extremists regarding the methods for protest against
the partition of Bengal (in the Swadeshi Movement).
Answer cannot be (b), (c) or (d), because moderates and
extremists re-united in the Lucknow session, 1916 which
was before Non-cooperation/Quit India/Civil Disobedience
Movements.
Question: 7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger
in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that
particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of
Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. [D]
Explanation
Both statements are wrong.
• The maximum strength of the council of a state is fixed
at one-third of the total strength of the assembly,
and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some
exceptions).
• The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the
council itself from amongst its members.
Question: 8. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj System is to ensure which among the
following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer. [C]
Explanation
To attain decentralised & participatory local self-government is the fundamental objective of
Panchayati Raj. Although all the statements can be associated with Panchayati Raj, the
correct answer is 1 and 3 (as given in the official UPSC answer key).
Statement 4 is wrong because financial mobilization was
never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj.
Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc.) is the outcome of the establishment
of the PRIS, not its objective. In fact, only a few states have devolved financial powers to
their PRIs.
Statement 3 is also inappropriate in the context of the question. Reasons are:
(i) Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it
need not necessarily be via a local body.
(ii) Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability,
but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization.
Question: 9. The ideal of “welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Answer. [B]
Explanation
In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or
administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and
controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere-educational, commercial,
social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for
the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Question: 10. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Answer[D]
Explanation
Option (a) points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary
Democratic system.
For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option (d) is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok
Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.
Question: 11. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been launched for
(a) providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
(b) Promoting women’s Self Help Groups in backward areas
(c) promoting financial inclusion in the country
(d) providing financial help to marginalised communities
Answer. [C]
Explanation
PMJDY’S main objective is financial inclusion.
Question: 12. With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42
percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer [A]
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 14th FC has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax
revenues be 42%, a huge jump from the 32% recommended by the 13th FC.
Statement 2 is wrong. No sector specific grant recommendations were made.
Question: 13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. [B]
Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are right.
3rd statement is wrong as Budget can be discussed by Rajya Sabha (but RS cannot vote on
the Demands for Grants).
Question: 14 The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above
Ans. [B]
Explanation
Government of India Act of 1919 separated the central and provincial subjects. The central
and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects.
However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
It further divided the provincial subjects into 2 parts: transferred and reserved, which is what
we know as ‘diarchy’.
Question: 15. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has
to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the House
(d) absolute majority of the House
Ans. [A]
Explanation
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be
passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
Question: 16. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Answer [D]
Self-explanatory
Also Read : UPSC Polity Question Paper 2011: UPSC Prelims Solved Question Paper
