Question: 1. Consider the following pairs :
Programme : Project Ministry
1. Drought-prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture.
2. Desert Development Programme: Ministry of Environment and Forests.
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas: Ministry of Rural
Development.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer.[D]
Explanation
1 and 2 are wrong. Both are under Min. of Rural Dev.
3 is wrong because National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas falls under
Ministry of Agriculture.
Therefore answer is D none are correctly matched.
Question: 2. Consider the following languages:
1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the
Government?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer. [C]
Explanation
Tamil was the first Classical Language of India.
The government declared Tamil (in 2004), Sanskrit (in 2005).
These two languages are undoubtedly parental sources for many languages belonging to the
Indo-European family and the Dravidian family of linguistic groups.
Later the government declared Kannada and Telugu (in 2008) as classical languages of India.
In 2013, Malayalam was also given status of classical language. In 2014, Odiya was also
given the status of Classical language.
With this the following six languages are included in the list of Classical Languages:
1. Tamil (since 2004)
2.Sanskrit (since 2005)
3. Telugu (since 2008)
4. Kannada (Since 2008)
5. Malayalam (since 2013)
6.Odiya (since 2014)
Question: 3. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the
following statements:
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Jeneiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. [B]
Explanation
First BRICS Summit was held in 2009 in Russia, second statement is correct.
Question: 4. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The committee on Public Accounts.
(b) The committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The committee on Petition
Answer. [B]
Explanation
Refer to : Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament. Page 22.30 to 22.33
Committee on Public Accounts – No. of members 22
Committee on Estimates – No. of members 30
Committee on Public Undertakings – No. of members 22
Committee on Petitions – No. of members: LS(15) , RS(10)
Also Read: Solved UPSC Prelims Polity Question Paper 2015: UPSC Prelims Exam 2015
Question: 4. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
(a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction.
(b) inclusive and sustainable growth.
(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment.
(d) faster, Sustainable and more inclusive growth.
Answer. [D]
Self Explanatory
Question: 5. Consider the following countries:
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only
Ans: [D]
Explanation
Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses issues faced by the
Arctic governments and the indigenous people of the Arctic.
There are members and Observer states. Only states with territory in the Arctic can be
members of the Council.
It has eight member countries: Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway,
Russia, Sweden, and the United States.
Question: 6. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans : [D]
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Tenth Schedule
Ref: Laxmikanth ch.67, opening paragraph
The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, added 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often
referred to as
anti-defection law.
Question: 7. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is
included in the?
(a) Preamble to the constitution.
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy.
(c) Fundamental Duties.
(d) Ninth Schedule.
Ans: [B]
Explanation
ARTICLE 51 – DPSP
Question: 8. Which of the following is/are the function/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: [C]
Explanation
Statement 3 is incorrect – allocation of financial resources is done by the finance ministry in
consonance with the priorities presented in the budget.
Question: 9. Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual
liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: [B]
Explanation
Only statement 2 is correct. Self-Explanatory
Question: 10. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of
India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer. [B]
Explanation
Article 166(3) – The Governor shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the
business of the Government of the State, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said
business in so far as it is not business with respect to which the Governor is by or under this
Constitution required to act in his discretion – statement 4 does not comes under the
discretionary powers of the Governor .
Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the CM and hence not a
discretionary power.
Question: 11. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the
Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the
name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. [A]
Explanation
Article 77(c) – Verbatim, second statement being wrong, since all decision are taken in the
name of President
Question: 12. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: [C]
Explanation
Ref: Laxmikanth chapter on parliament, Chapter 22 Art 75 says that the Council of Ministers
shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them
by passing a no-confidence motion.
But the word no confidence motion itself is not given in Constitution itself, it comes from
Rule 198 of
LokSabha Rules.
Therefore statement 1 is right, NCM not in Constitution.
Same chapter. Rajya Sabha cannot pass cannot remove council of ministers by passing
no-confidence motion.
Meaning-statement 2 also correct- no confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok
Sabha.
Therefore, Answer C Both 1 and 2 correct.
Question: 13. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in?
(a) The President of India.
(b) the Parliament.
(c) The Chief Justice of India.
(d) the Law Commission.
Answer. [B]
Explanation
The parliament of India has power to make laws, organizing jurisdiction and powers of
Supreme Court.
The number of judges can be increased or decreased by the parliament by legislation.
Also Read : UPSC Polity Question Paper 2011: UPSC Prelims Solved Question Paper
