The most important part of any exam is the way of asking questions. UPSC is different and difficult because of its broader and wider area of questions. Each candidate must be perfect and confident while answering the questions.

This exam makes you a person of wisdom and knowledge. You must be aware of the framing of the question paper of the UPSC exam. This exam is regarded as the toughest due to two major factors. Firstly, competency among the high number of candidates and secondly, the questions being asked from around the world. The knowledge within you will bring the confidence in answering.

You must work on gaining the utmost knowledge for this exam. If you are looking for environment questions in UPSC prelims 2020 or environment questions with solutions, you will get everything relevant in this article. Keep reading it to know all the details.

Also Read : 3 Months Preparation Plan for UPSC Prelims: A Step Towards Success

Environment Questions and Answers

The cut-off of the UPSC exam is decided every year by the UPSC board. The two prelims papers are GS paper 1 and GS paper 2. The marks obtained in General Studies Paper – I of the UPSC IAS Exam alone are considered in deciding the cut-off and selecting candidates for the UPSC CSE Mains Exam. You must have all the information about the environment question paper. The General Studies Paper-II of the Civil Services Preliminary Exam is an exam that gives you qualifications. You must get minimum qualifying marks which are 33%. It is also referred to as CSAT. You should get all the necessary documents done before the exam and put your dedication into this exam.

Also Read: UPSC 2021 Topper List: Check Out the Unbelievable Achievements of Candidates

Environment Questions in UPSC Prelims 2020

Question 1

In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for

#a. fertilization of an egg in vitro by the donor sperm

#b. genetic modification of sperm-producing cells

#c. development of stem cells into functional embryos

#d. prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Answer

The correct option is D because a pronucleus is the nucleus of the egg or sperm at the stage of fertilization prior to nucleus fusion and a pronuclear transfer is used in the process of a three-parent baby.

Question 2

Regarding carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

#a. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.

#b. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.

#c. They can be used in biochemical sensors.

#d. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2, 3, and 4 only

#c. 1, 3, and 4 only

#d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

The correct option is D. The reasons for it include the working of carbon nanotubes. The Carbon nanotubes can easily penetrate cells and improve the pharmacological and therapeutic profile, and efficacy of the drug. Therefore, we can say that statement 1 is correct. Biotechnology facilitates the making of nanodevices using blood-compatible nanomaterials as building blocks for biomedical applications such as artificial implants including structural tissue replacements, artificial blood vessels, or functional devices such as drug delivery matrices. It is proved that statement 2 is correct.

NASA has successfully demonstrated a miniaturized electronics technology with extremely high sensitivity for in-vitro detecting specific biomarker signatures, which is based on incorporating embedded vertically aligned carbon nanotubes as nanoelectrode arrays in diagnostics devices.  It is obvious that statement 3 is correct. It has been demonstrated that functionalized carbon nanotubes can be degraded by oxidative enzymes. Multiple types of microbes including bacteria and fungi have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs), graphene (GRA), and their derivatives. Hence all the statements are right.

Question  3

Consider the following activities:

#a. Spraying pesticides on a crop field.

#b. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes.

#c. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis.

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because the Ministry of Agriculture of India clarified that no permission or approval has been granted by the Central Insecticides Board (CIB) for spraying pesticides using drones. But drones can be used for spraying pesticides and many farmers in India in the Southern region of the country are using it. This shows that statement 1 is right. The researchers from the Centre for Geosciences (GFZ) in Germany used drones equipped with visual and thermal cameras to study the active Santa Maria volcano, located in Guatemala in May 2020. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

The researchers in Woods Hole Oceanographic Institute used an unmanned aerial vehicle (drone) to collect breath samples from humpback whales in Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary off the coast of Massachusetts in 2015. Statement 3 is also proved.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:

#a. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperm of a prospective parent.

#b. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.

#c. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

#a. 1 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 2 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because of the detailed study of genome editing, germline gene therapy and human-induced pluripotent stem cells.

Question  5

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?

#a. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not

#b. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do

#c. A mature plant cell has one large vacuole.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b.  2 and 3 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because a plant cell has cellulose cell walls and a mature plant cell has one vacuole.

Also Read: Is CSAT Prelims Paper Removed from UPSC Examination 2021? Check Out the Pattern of UPSC

Environment Questions

Question 6

Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

#a. Automobile exhaust

#b. Tobacco smoke

#c. Wood burning

#d. Using varnished wooden furniture

#e. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1, 2, and 3 only

#b.  2 and 4 only

#c.  1, 3, and 4 only

#d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer

Option D is correct because benzene is used in many processes and all the statements are correct for benzene pollution.

Question 7

Regarding Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

#a. The leader of an elephant group is a female

#b. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months

#c. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only

#d. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 and 4 only

#c. 3 only

#d. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer

Option A is correct because Karnataka has the highest number of elephants in India and elephants have the longest gestation period of all mammals. These gentle giants’ pregnancies last for more than a year and a half. The average gestation period of an elephant is about 640 to 660 days, or roughly 95 weeks. The calves generally live with the mother till they are five years old after which the males leave the herd but the females remain

Question 8

Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?

#a. Nagarhole National Park

#b. Papikonda National Park

#c. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

#d. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a.1 and 2 only

#b. 3 and 4 only

#c. 1, 3, and 4 only

#d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

The correct option is C due to the reason that Papikonda National Park lies in the Godavari River Basin.

Question 9

Regarding India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet, and White-throated Redstart are

#a. Birds

#b. Primates

#c.Reptiles

#d. Amphibians

Answer

The correct option is A because Ceylon Frogmouth is a nocturnal Small Bird from Sri Lanka, Coppersmith Barbet is an Asian barbet, Gray-Chinned Minivet is a bird from the Campephagidae family and White-throated redstart belongs to Muscicapidae.

Question 10

Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

#a. Kanha National Park

#b. Manas National Park.

#c.  Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

#d. Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer

The right option is A because Swamp Deer are found in Kanha national park, 2 locations in Assam and 6 locations in Uttar Pradesh. They are no longer found in West Bengal as they are regionally extinct.

Question 11

Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

#a. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary

#b. Gangotri National Park

#c. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary

#d. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 3 and 4 only

#d. 1 and 4 only

Answer

The correct option is D  because a solitary shy animal, the musk deer lives in mountainous regions from Siberia to the Himalayas. It must be acknowledged that Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is located 54 km from Pithoragarh near Askot in Uttarakhand state. Gangotri National Park is also a habitat of Musk Deers.

Question 12

In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

#a. Copper slag

#b. Cold mix asphalt technology

#c. Geotextiles

#d. Hot mix asphalt technology

#e. Portland cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1, 2, and 3 only

#b. 2, 3, and 4 only

#c. 4 and 5 only

#d. 1 and 5 only

Answer

The correct option is A because copper slag, geotextiles and cold mix asphalt technology is used for the road construction for stability.

Question 13

Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

#a. Construction of base road

#b. Improvement of agricultural soil

#c. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because steel slag is a byproduct of steel and it is used for the construction. It is silicate fertilizer and soil improvement acids. It is used for the production of cement as well.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:

#a. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, and mercury.

#b. Coal-fired power plants release sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.

#c. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

#a. 1 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because all the three statements are correct.

Question 15

What is the use of biochar in farming?

#a. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.

#b. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.

#c. When biochar is a part of the growing- medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct answer is D because biochar is used for all the statements given above. It is a good manure and product to enhance the soil.

Also Read: How to Prepare for UPSC CSAT Paper 2? CSAT Explained in an Easy Way for You

Question 16

If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act 1972, what is the implication?

#a. A license is required to cultivate that plant

#b.  Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances

#c. It is a Genetically Modified crop plant

#d.  Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem

Answer

The correct option is B because the specified endemic plants in Schedule VI f. The Wildlife Protection Act prohibits cultivation and planting.

Question 17

What is/are the advantages/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

#a. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop

#b. Without the need for the nursery of rice seedlings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.

#c. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 2 and 3 only

#c. 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is D because Zero-till farming is a way of growing wheat crops without tillage or disturbing the soil in harvested fields. Happy Seeder is one of the unique techniques which is used for sowing seed without any burning of crop residue. Direct Seeded Rice Zero-Tillage (DSR) is an alternative crop establishment method for rice.

Where seeds are sown directly without raising them in a nursery and can be done in zero-tillage conditions.

Adopting no-tillage before cultivation has been widely recommended as a means of enhancing carbon sequestration in soils.

If crops are not burnt and the land is prepared through mechanical agitation, carbon sequestration remains possible.​ Therefore, all the statements are correct.

Question 18

According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

#a. Cassava

#b. Damaged wheat grains

#c. Groundnut seeds

#d. Horse gram

#e. Rotten potatoes

#f. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

#b. 1, 3, 4, and 6 only

#c. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

#d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer

The correct option is A because cassava, damaged wheat grains , rotten potatoes and sugar beet are the ones that are used for the production of biofuels. The reason for it is that these 4 things contain the nutrients necessary for biofuel.

Question 19

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon?

#a. It is a measure, in monetary value, of the long-term damage was done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year

#b. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels

#c. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place

#d. contribution of a person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth

Answer

The option which is correct is A. The reason for it is the Social Cost of Carbon is the basis of the present value of the future damages that one additional unit of carbon emission can induce in the environment.

Question 20

In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

#a.Crop diversification

#b.Legume intensification

#c.Tensiometer use

#d.Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1, 2, and 3 only

#b.  3 only

#c.  4 only

#d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Option D is correct because all the statements are true and factual for enhancing the eco friendly nature in India. All these processes are used differently for improving the soil fertility and development.

Question 21

Consider the following minerals:

#a. Bentonite

#b. Chromite

#c. Kyanite

#d. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b. 4 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer

The correct answer is D because chromite, kyanite and sillimanite are regarded as the major minerals. They help in many essential functions.

Question 22

About Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

#a. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March.

#b. OMT collected from January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 only

#b. 2 only

#c. Both 1 and 2

#d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Option D is correct because 26 degree isotherm is witnessed at a depth between 50 to 100 m.

Question 23

Regarding India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?

#a. It is spread over two districts.

#b. There is no human habitation inside the Park.

#c. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

#a. 1 and 2 only

#b.  2 and 3 only

#c. 1 and 3 only

#d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is C because option 1 and 2 are true. The Desert National Park is situated in Gujarat and it is the most popular habitat of the Great Indian Bustard. The Desert National Park is also one of the largest protected lands in India. It is located in the districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer in Rajasthan.

Question 24

Consider the following statements :

#a. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).

#b. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.

#c. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

#a. 1 only

#b.  2 and 3 only

#c. 2 only

#d. 1 and 3 only

Answer

Option B is correct because of the fact that more than 50% of India’s districts are classified as “critical” and “overexploited” by CGWA, Central Ground Water Authority.

Question 25

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

#a. Corbett

#b. Ranthambore

#c. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

#d. Sunderbans

Answer

The correct option is C because of the area. Pakke which is situated in Arunachal Pradesh is 683 sq. Km Nagarjuna Sagar, located in Andhra Pradesh is 2595 sq. Km. Manas in Assam is 840 sq. Km and Periyar in Kerala is 881 sq. Km.

Also Read: CSAT Questions for UPSC: Check Out the CSAT Sample Papers and Patterns

Conclusion

Hopefully, this article has helped you in knowing the type of questions asked in the UPSC exam and the way of answering them. When you understand the questions then only your UPSC preparation becomes strong for the exam. Every candidate must timely check the question papers to be aware of the sphere of the questions. It makes you more concrete and concise. If you are working hard and desire to get the throne this time, you must have benefited from this article. For further inquiries and queries, you must visit the UPSC Pathshala website where each answer to your questions is available appropriately. You will get auspicious answers from the most experienced people and professors. Therefore, keep yourself acknowledged by all the updated information and question papers along with getting in contact with the experts through the website for your upliftment.

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Environment Questions in UPSC Prelims 2020: Here’re the Prelims Questions with Detailed Answers
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Environment Questions in UPSC Prelims 2020: Here’re the Prelims Questions with Detailed Answers
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Shilpa

Shilpa is a professional web content writer and is in deep love with travelling. She completed her mass communication degree and is now dedicatedly playing with words to guide her readers to get the best for themselves. Developing educational content for UPSC, IELTS aspirants from breakthrough research work is her forte. Strongly driven by her zodiac sign Sagittarius, Shilpa loves to live her life on her own notes and completely agrees with the idea of ‘live and let live. Apart from writing and travelling, most of the time she can be seen in the avatar of 'hooman' mom to her pets and street dogs or else you can also catch her wearing the toque blanche and creating magic in the kitchen on weekends.

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