How is your UPSC preparation going on? Solving previous year question papers is also an important part of your UPSC IAS exam preparation. In this article, you can solve some of the Polity questions for UPSC. Read the article till the end to get Polity questions in UPSC Prelims as well as in UPSC mains. Try answering the prelims questions without looking at the answers. For mains questions, no answer will be given as it is a descriptive paper. But you can still practice writing answers and then get it checked by your tutor or by referring to any online answers key.
Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2018
The questions that were asked in 2018 on Polity are:
Question
Q1. Consider the following statements :
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans- (b) 2 only
Question
Q2. Consider the following statements :
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Also Read: What is Ocean Mean Temperature: Questions from UPSC 2020 Prelims Examination
Question
Q3. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans- (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
Question
Q4. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans- (a) 1 and 2 Only
Question
Q5. Which among the following events happened earliest?
(a) Swami Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Ans- (b) Dinabandhu Mitra Wrote Neeldarpan
Question
Q6. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the house whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans- (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Question
Q7. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately implies the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Ans: C- Article 21 and freedoms guaranteed in Part III
Question
Q8. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
-
The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
-
The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2
Ans- C- Both 1 and 2
Question
Q9. In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power was given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor-General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Ans- (b) Governor-General
Question
Q10. Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Also Read: GK Questions Asked on UPSC: Examples of GK Questions Asked in 2020
Question
Q 11- Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Ans- (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
Question
Q12. Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- C- Both 1 and 2
Question
Q13. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
-
Limitation of powers
-
Equality before law
-
People’s responsibility to the Government
-
Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans- C- 1, 2, and 4 only.
Polity Previous Years Questions UPSC Prelims 2019
The questions that were asked in 2018 on Polity are:
Question
Q1. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer- (C) Sarkaria Commission.
Question
Q2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (d) Neither 1 and 2
Question
Q3. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
Ans- (b) Absence of restraint.
Question
Q4. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans- (c) 1,2 and 4
Question
Q5. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of the grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
Ans- (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the parliament.
Question
Q6. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (a) 1 Only
Question
Q7. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Ans- (b) Article 19.
Question
Q8. Consider the following statements:
The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans- (b) 2 Only
Also Read: UPSC Questions on Five Year Plan: All About the Five Years Plan & Economic Planning in India
Question
Q9. Consider the following statements:
The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans- (c) 3 and 4 only
Question
Q10. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans- (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Question
Q11. Consider the following statements:
The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 Only
Also Read: What are the best Indian Polity notes for serious UPSC exam aspirants
Polity Previous Years Questions UPSC mains 2019
There are the questions that were asked from Polity in UPSC Main 2019:
Q1. “The Central Administrative Tribunal which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its powers as an independent judicial authority.” Explain.
Q2. From the resolution of contentious issues regarding the distribution of legislative powers by the courts, the ‘Principle of Federal Supremacy’ and ‘Harmonious Construction’ have emerged. Explain.
Q3. “Parliament’s power to amend the constitution is limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power”. In light of this statement, explain whether parliament under article 368 of the constitution can destroy the basic structure of the constitution by expanding its amending power? (15 marks)
Q4. “The reservation of seats for women in the institution of local self-government has had a limited impact on the patriarchal character of the Indian political process”. Comment.
Q5. “The Attorney-General is the chief legal adviser and lawyer of the Government of India.” Discuss
Q6. Individual parliamentarian’s role as the national lawmaker is on a decline, which in turn, has adversely impacted the quality of debates and their outcome. Discuss.
Also Read: Answer Writing for Preparation Tips UPSC: Daily Answer Writing Practice for UPSC Mains 2021
Polity Books for UPSC
Some of the best books for Polity are:
- Indian Polity by M.Laxmikant
- Our Parliament for Polity by Subhash Kashyap
- Introduction to the Constitution of India for Polity by Durga Das Basu
Also Read: 5 Non-Fiction Books to Read Before You Even Think of UPSC: Click Here to Know it All
Conclusion
There are almost 13-20 questions asked every year in UPSC prelims. This is a very decent range of questions for a subject. Therefore Polity is one of the important subjects for the Civil Service Exam (CSE).
Practising answer writing on consistent basics is a must for every aspirant. Try writing the answers to the above UPSC mains questions
Let us know in the comment section below how many questions were you able to answer without looking at the answer for prelims.
